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Cost of sales are not correlated with asset impairments. The impairments came from devaluation of assets held on the books. The primary driver in the cost of sales are sales incentives and the ratio of resources needed to generate the sales to actual revenue. If anything, the higher the impairment charge, the more the company would have to incentivize(?) to create a unit sale, thus generally a higher cost of sale per unit (ex. closing cost costs subsidy, free amenities, free cars, flat screens, furniture, commission rebates, etc.)

Am I missing something in your interpretation here?